Discussion

Explanation:

The amount payable after the first year is 1,00,000 × 1.1 = Rs 1,10,000

As he repays Rs 40,000 after first year, the amount left is 1,10,000 – 40,000 = 70,000

So, the second year’s interest will only be on the remaining Rs. 70,000.

Amount payable at the end of the second year = 70,000 × 1.1 = Rs. 77,000.

Hence, option (a).

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